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Old November 2nd, 2005, 11:18 AM
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Unlike in WWI there was not any use of gas as a weapon. After a while it appears from Kai's comment the German soldier may have become complacent about ever using his mask and put the bag to more immediate uses. They may have also been useful to cut the stench of death after battles based on Ali's comment.

Were the German population initially prepared for gas warfare? If Churchill could have saturation bombed the German state with gas would it have been devestating to the populace or would they have masks ready?
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