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Originally Posted by Roddoss72
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Thank you, for pulling me up on that, so how does the US Government justify to the people of America that it needs to get involved in WWII millitarily (sending in troops), as i said no Japanese attacks on American interests, so how does the US Government bypass it's Neutrality Act and who to declare war on, remember this the US did nothing when Germany
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The way they were doing it prior to PH. A concerted propaganda campaign. It was working by the way. If you look at poles for the late 30's you will find that the US population favored a very strict interpretation of the neutrality act. By 41 the majority favored anything short of war in support of Britain and her allies. A significant number were in favor of going to war with Germany by late 41. Indeed there is some thought that Roosevelt could have gotten a declaration of war without PH in December. However he didn't want overwhelming support for the war. The way things were going he would probably have had it in the first half of 42.