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Originally Posted by PactOfSteel
Why did bitter enemies follow these rules? I mean what exactly would have happened if the Germans started using gas warfare again on the Allies? would they have written letters to Hitler telling him he violated the treaty? just wondering. I mean the Germans could have gassed the Allied forces at Normandy/D-Day and probably won the battle.
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Some attribute Hitler's reluctance to using gas because of his being exposed to gas in WWI. He also knew that if he used it first the Allies would have no regrets in using it on the Germans in response. The Allies were quite prepared to use it if Hitler used it first. The US had gas filled munitions in the Harbor of Bari,Italy just in case.
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For the first time I have seen "History" at close quarters,and I know that its actual process is very different from what is presented to Posterity. - WWI General Max Hoffman.
I'm the "Confederate with a pipe"!! LOL