Thanks for numbers Kai, it's hard to cross examine Glanz and Werth numbers, but at least I would say that it goes against a common misbelief : "the Red Army had such a huge numerical advantage it won the war because Germans had not enough bullets to kill'em all"
Quick question here, had the Germans not used so many men in Russia but relyed on superior fighting would the Western front been easier to hold against the approaching Americans/British/Canadians come 1944?
I donĀ“t think you can take the troops from the Ostfront or it will collapse definitely. If you compare the Red Army had some 5 million men in arms ( more or less ) and in the West they had some 500,000-700,000 (?) or more. Maybe someone can give a more precise figure on the Allied troops in West June-Dec 1944.